|
BAPTISM
FOR THE DEAD?
1
Cor 15:29 Now if there is no resurrection, what will those do who are
baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are
people baptized for them? (NIV)
1
Cor 15:29 Else what shall they do that are baptized for the dead? If
the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized for them?
(ASV)
1
Cor 15:29 Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if
the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?
(KJV)
Strong's
# 1893 epei (ep-i'); from 1909 and 1487; thereupon, i.e. since (of
time or cause): KJV-- because, else, for that (then, -asmuch as),
otherwise, seeing that, since, when. (DIC)
ELSE
epei
^1893^, a conjunction, when used of cause, meaning "since,"
"otherwise," "for then," "because"; in
an ellipsis, "else," as in <1 Cor. 7:14>, where the
ellipsis would be "if the unbelieving husband were not
sanctified in the wife, your children would be unclean"; cf.
<Rom. 11:6,22; 1 Cor. 5:10; Heb. 9:26>. Sometimes it introduces
a question, as in <Rom. 3:6; 1. Cor. 14:16; 15:29; Heb. 10:2>.
It is translated "else" in <1 Cor. 14:16> and in the
RV in <Heb. 9:26> and <10:2>, for KJV, "for then."
(from Vine's Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words)
Now
if there is no resurrection, what will those do who are baptized for
the dead?
In
context of the preceding and following verses, this seems to be an
argument for one of the greatest doctrines of the Christian faith,
the resurrection from the dead. Paul may be speaking in reference to
some baptismal rite of the Corinthian culture, although there is no
historical or archaeological evidence to support this being a custom
during Paul's time. It was during Tertullians time, much later.
There is another possibility.
The
Apocrypha (psuedo-scripture) in II Maccabees 12:43-45 does offer the
likelihood of a belief of certain ideas about the dead that may have
spread to the Corinth from some Jewish faction. "And when he
had made a gathering throughout the company to the sum of two
thousand drachmas of silver, he sent it to Jerusalem to offer a sin
offering, doing therein very well and honestly, in that he was
mindful of the resurrection: for if he had not hoped that they that
were slain should have risen again, it had been superfluous and vain
to pray for the dead. And also in that he perceived that there was
great favour laid up for those that died godly, it was an holy and
good thought. Whereupon he made a reconciliation for the dead, that
they might be delivered from sin."
There
also seems to be an implication of the absurdity of baptizing the
living for the dead in that which follows the first elements of the
verse. To say "What will the position of those who are baptized
for the dead be?" would likely be another way of stating Paul's
question.
If
the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized for them?
This
question more than likely is referenced by the following verses and
not the preceding verse. Again, in context of the portions of
Scripture surrounding these two questions, Paul seems to be defending
the doctrine of the resurrection from the dead and the absurdity of
baptizing for the dead if there is no resurrection. There were
obviously those in Corinth and even in the Jewish culture who did not
believe in a resurrection, i.e.; the Sadducees. To do anything for
the dead other than bury them, is useless.
All
told, there are many interpretations of this verse of Scripture,
close to 50, but this explanation seems to be one of the most
accurate in relation to the original Greek. The most important thing
to realize in all this is that, in the Christian faith, there is no
room for "baptism of the dead". During Turtullians time,
it was practised more in the heretic circles than in any other. It
is a doctrine that as far as I can tell is something that Paul was
refuting and in that, there was a defense of the true Gospel of
Christ.
Craig
Roberts
References
include:
1.
The Septuagint with the Apocrypha.
2.
The Amplified Bible
3.
The International Critical Commentary on I Corinthians (Robertson and
Plummer)
|